Just like 'Africa' is a termed brought about by Romans it appears 'human' comes from them too. I was wonder based on accounts of the religious text of the Bible nowhere does it mentions 'human'. But why did we switch from the lone term 'man' to this term 'human'. Is this political? religious? economical? or a combination? I do understand the Romans no long stand today but their influence still impact the world today. Does human embrace equality or pronounces inequality.

http://www.takeourword.com/current/page2.html

Could you tell me when the word human was first used in contrast to man or mankind? Who invented it and was it for the purpose of being gender neutral?

The Romans "invented" this word. In Latin it is humanus "of or belonging to man[kind], human". It is related to two other Latin words: homo and hominem, both meaning "man". Human first turns up in the English written record in the late 12th century. Humane is basically the same word which simply diverged in meaning. While human means, etymologically, "man", in English it has meant "mankind" since its earliest use. It was not "invented" as a politically correct term. It was simply a useful word which could serve as a noun or an adjective and refer to all mankind collectively.
Man, by the way, has it origins in Old Teutonic *man- "man" and is cognate with the German Mann "person". Interestingly, in Old English man was often used to refer to either sex. Wer was the word for a "man", and wif for a "woman". However, man also meant "male" in Old English, and that is the surviving sense today, except in compounds like mankind.